In this article, we assume partner opened 1NT (15-17).

As responder, with a five-card (or longer) MAJOR, I recommend always transferring. See this article.

But, with a five-card (or longer) minor, it is a completely different ballgame.

With the major, transferring allows you to play on the two-level. But, with a minor, a transfer puts you on the three level. Why would you want to play in 3 instead of 1NT if you held, say: 

 Q6  
 J76  
 765  
 Q8765?
 

Just because you can transfer to a minor, doesn't mean you should transfer to the minor.

What if you held:

 KJ 
542 
 AQ875  
Q54?

Why bother showing the diamonds? You want to be in 3NT, so bid 3NT.

Just because you can transfer to a minor, doesn't mean you should transfer to the minor.

Even with a six-card minor, why show it if you want to be in 3NT no matter what? Raise 1NT to 3NT with:

 J4  
 J3 
 K32  
 KQJ765.

Just because you can transfer to a minor, doesn't mean you should transfer to the minor.

Why is this different from the handling of a five-plus card major? Because minors pay only 20 points a trick. To bid game in a minor, you need to be on the five level! When partner opens 1NT, I'd guess that five-of-a-minor is the right contract less than 2% of the time. If there is a game, it is "always" in 3NT or a major.

Furthermore, with a bad hand and a major, you can let partner play it on the 2 level. With a bad hand and a minor, you'd have to reach the 3 level (not something you want to do with only a 5-card minor).

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If you have a decent hand with a four-card major and a longer minor, you can start with Stayman and then show the minor. For example, responder to 1NT has:

Q832  
-- 
J76 
 AQ8652.
He starts with 2. If partner bids spades, life is easy (raise to game). If partner doesn't bid 2, then the minor can be shown--3 (assuming the partnership plays this as forcing). In this case, responder doesn't want to insist on 3NT.  But, with flat hands (as in the earlier examples), responder should insist on notrump instead of looking for greener pastures.

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When would you transfer?

When would responder actually start with a transfer to a minor? (As to which system and how, you can read this article).

• If she wants to play in three-of-a-minor!   Why would she want to? She has at least a six-card minor and thinks that 3 (or 3) would have a better chance than 1NT. As examples, I'd prefer to play in three-of-my-minor with either of these hands: 

   3  
   654  
   QJ10965  
   543 or  6   765   43   J765432.
   
  In fact, when you have a weak hand and a 6+ card minor, I recommend always playing in 3 of the minor instead of 1NT (in 1NT, your minor will often produce 0 tricks!).

• If she has slam interest. Transferring to a minor and then bidding 3NT shows mild slam interest. With each of these hands, you can transfer and then bid 3NT to invite slam:

   K2  
   AJ7  
   KJ9765  
   K3 or  Q5   KQ8   K2   AJ10765.
  

  Start with a transfer and next bid 3NT. How will partner know you have slam interest? Because if you didn't, you would have just raised 1NT to 3NT. That is why it would be a big mistake to start with a transfer with something like:

 54  
 32  
 65  
 AKJ9765 --you are always going to play in 3NT, so just bid it!

• She has an unbalanced hand where she isn't sure she wants to be in 3NT. (In some methods, you can transfer to the minor and then show your shortness). For example, start with a transfer with:

 --  
 J6  
 Q1076  
 AKJ7654
 or
 K42  
 5  
 AJ9654  
 A93.

 

SUMMARY

If you have no interest in playing in the minor, then don't transfer!  If you might end up with your minor as the trump suit, then show it. It is as simple as that. Just because you can transfer to a minor, doesn't mean you should transfer to the minor.

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