Results for Set 36

 
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#1) East deals, Both Vul.

Q 5 3 J 7 6 4 K J 7 6 3 A

A 6 A 2 A Q 4 K Q J 8 6 4

 
Scores for Board 1:
7NT: 10

7/: 8
6NT: 6
6/: 5
5NT: 3
5/: 2

 

What should East open? I think the hand is too strong for 2NT. I like 2 followed by either 2NT or 3. (Even 2 then 2NT isn't necessarily doing justice to this powerful trick-taking hand). If East does open 2, it is easy to reach six, but not as easy to reach the near laydown (needing no worse than 5-1 ) grand slam.

 

#2) South deals and opens 2, nobody vul.

A K J 5 J 3 A J 4 A 10 6 3

Q 10 2 A Q 2 K Q 8 7 6 Q 2

Deal 2 Scores:

6NT: 10
6: 8
6: 7
5NT: 5
5: 4
5: 3

 

West starts with a takeout double and East might bid a conservative 3NT which might end the auction. If playing Lebensohl, East might have various options (starting with either 2NT or a cue-bid) to show his extras. In spite of holding 33 HCP, many East-West pairs will find it hard to reach slam.

 

 

#3) West Deals, Nobody Vul.

A J K J 8 2 10 3 2 A 10 8 2

K 9 7 2 Q 6 3 A Q 7 6 5 4

 

Deal 3 Scores: 

5:10
4: 7

3: 6
4: 5
2NT: 4
3NT: 1

 

After 1-1-1NT, it is easy to see East lazily bidding 3NT without exploring alternatives. Maybe "lazy" is unfair--why would East want to give away information about West's hand if he is ending in 3NT anyway? Still, that singleton diamond might tempt East to go another route--showing the support. However, this will depend on methods--how does East show a GF (or an invite?") in clubs? Typically, he would have to bid the new minor (2) and then follow with 3 (forcing).

 

 

#4) West deals, Nobody Vul.

A K 10 8 6 2 Q 4 A 2 A 6 5

5 3 A 9 2 K Q J 9 5 K 8 7

Board 4 Scores:

6:10
6: 9

7: 8

5: 6
5NT: 5
6NT: 4

5: 4
7/NT: 1

 

After 1-2, West should rebid only 2 (assuming 2/1 GF). East now bids 2NT (though some might use a fast-arrival jump to 3NT to show a minimum). After 1-2-2-2NT, West is worth a quantitative 4NT. Will East make a move (based on his good diamonds)? Not likely.

 

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