Set 06Results


Author: Larry Cohen
Date of publish: 08/31/2015
Level: Intermediate to Advanced

Results for Set 6

 
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#1) East deals, neither side vulnerable

?A K Q
?Q 9 8 5 4
?10 9 8 4
?2
  ?10 8 7
?2
?A K 5 3
?A Q 10 8 5

 

 

 

 

Scores for Board 1:

3?:10
4?:9
5?: 7
2NT: 6
3NT: 3

What should East open? My preference is 1? so that I am prepared to bid 2? next (lying slightly about the minor-suit lengths). The alternative of opening 1? and telling some other lie with my rebid is less appealing. After 1?-1?-2?, I expect West would bid 2NT and East would pass or raise to 3NT. After a 1?-1? start, I suppose East would lie with 2? or 1NT. None of these auctions seem headed towards diamonds. Yes, it could start: 1?-1?-2?-3?.   No game is good, thus the scoring as shown.

#2) West deals, neither side vulnerable

?A K 4
?K
?A K 8 7 6
?Q 9 8 3
  ?J 5 2
?A J 10 9 5 3
?Q J 10 2
?--

 

 

 



Deal 2 Scores:

7?:10
6?: 8
6?: 5
5?: 3
5?: 2
3NT: 2
7?: 1

After 1?-1?, I suspect most Wests would choose 2NT. No, this usually doesn't contain a singleton, but at least the singleton is the king and in partner's suit. The 2NT rebid gets the 19 HCP off opener's chest and feels more descriptive than a huge underbid of 2? (or misleading 3?). After 2NT, East can bid 3?, forcing. West can bid 3? (where he lives) and East might bid only 4? next. Still, West should head towards slam with his great red-suit cards. He will rightfully be concerned about a club control. Maybe it goes: 1?-1?-2N-3?-3?-4?-4?-5?... that leads to at least a small slam. Kudos to any pair who reached 7?. Nobody said these deals were easy.

 

#3) East deals, North-South Vulnerable, South bids 3?

?A Q
?A J 10 9
?J 10 8
?10 8 7 6
  ?5
?K Q 4
?A K 9 6 2
?A Q 4 2

 

 

 

 

Deal 3 Scores:

6NT: 10
6?: 8
6?: 7
6?: 5
5NT: 5
5?: 4
5?: 3
7?: 2
5?: 1

Assuming 2 spade tricks (likely), 6NT requires declarer to win either a diamond or club finesse for 12 tricks (at least 75%, probably more on the auction). Other slams are also decent propositions. After 1? (3?), I think it is more practical for West to try 3NT as opposed to a negative double. East now has many options: Pass, 4?, 4NT (Quantitative), or 5NT (Pick-a-Slam). Since Pass and 5NT are at opposite extremes, I like the middle courses (4? or 4NT). West might upgrade his great spots and treat the ?AQ as ?AK to accept an invitation.

#4) South opens 1?, Both vulnerable, North bids 3? (weak)

?A Q 5
?A 6 4
?Q
?A K J 10 9 4
  ?10 6 4 3 2
?K 7 3 2
?9
?6 5 3

 

 

 



Board 4 Scores:

4?: 10
3?: 8
4?: 7
5?: 5
Slams: 1

After South's 1?, West is too strong to overcall 2?, so he should double. The preemptive 3? comes back to West, who should double again. East might bid only 3? and buy it there. He could make a bigger bid (maybe 4?) which could lead to 5? (which needs a fair amount of luck). No game is great--and nothing is clear. So, why is this deal included? It comes (as do most of these) from the Becker Archives--maybe Mr. Becker knows something I don't know.

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