Set 04Results


Author: Larry Cohen
Date of publish: 06/30/2015
Level: Intermediate to Advanced

Results for Set 4

(for instructions, click here).

Deal 1: West deals, both vulnerable

?A J 7 3 2
?A K 5
?A 5 3
?9 8
  ?Q 10 8
?10 9 3
?4
?K Q J 10 7 2

 

 

 

 

Deal 1 Scores: 

4?: 10
5?: 7
6?: 6
6?: 4
5?: 4
3?: 3
4?: 2
3NT: 1


Slam is poor since it is at best on the spade finesse. In clubs, it is pretty much a 50-50 proposition. In spades it is worse, since 4-1 spades or clubs could provide a problem and there are severe entry concerns. Although I am a staunch advocate of opening "all" 15-17 balanced hands with 1NT, West's hand looks more like a 1? opening bid to me. East will raise to 2? and it seems fairly normal to reach 4?. East could bid a forcing 1NT to treat his hand as a 3-card limit raise, but still, West should not go slamming. If West opens 1NT, East-West will need good methods (maybe Puppet Stayman) to get back into spades. Surely, 3NT is a poor contract.

Deal 2: East deals, neither vulnerable

?A 5 4 2
?7
?K Q
?J 8 7 6 4 2
  ?Q 8 6 3
?A K 8 2
?A 2
?A K 5

 

 

 

 

Deal 2 Scores:

4?: 10
4NT: 9
5?:7
5?:5
6NT:4
6?:3
6?:2

The auction should start 2N-3?-3?.  Now, West will bid 4? to show his club suit. This is a complicated auction in that some pairs have other ways for responder to show clubs (without going through Stayman first). The question is: Does Stayman followed by four-of-a-minor guarantee a 4-card major? Will East now try 4?? Would West then Pass?  No doubt, this deal will cause trouble for many partnerships. Also no doubt, I'll get e-mails saying, "Larry--why don't you completely explain the correct auction?"  Answer: This is just a short summary--I can do only so much. Besides--there usually isn't one "correct auction."

 

Deal 3: East deals, both vulnerable

 

?7
?K Q 10 8 6
?5 2
?9 8 6 5 2
  ?A K 9 8 2
?A J
?A 4
?K J 10 7

 

 

 

 

Deal 3 Scores:

4?: 10
5?: 9
6?: 5
3?: 4
4?: 3
1?: 2
3NT: 1

 

At IMPs, 5? is better (safer) than 4?, but the latter gets the top score at matchpoints. A possible auction: 1?-1NT-3?-3?-4?-P.  I see no reason for opener to distort by opening 2NT or 2?.

 

Deal 4: West deals, neither vulnerable

?--
?A 5
?K Q J 10 2
?K J 10 4 3 2
  ?A Q 8 7 6
?7 4 2
?A 9 3
?A 7

 

 

 

 

Deal 4 Scores:

7?: 10
6?: 9
6?: 8
7?: 4
6NT: 3
7NT: 2
Games: 2

In clubs (or notrump) a 3-2 break with the queen right is needed for 13 tricks. In diamonds there are better (extra) chances. With 5-6, West will likely open in his shorter suit (?) to avoid reversing. (However, if West considers his hand good enough to reverse, he can start with 1?, planning to bid diamonds next). But, when West starts with 1?, East will eventually take a preference to diamonds. The start would be 1?-1?-2?-2? -- 4th suit forcing. West then bids 3? and East can bid 3? to show his support (no rush to do more in a game force). West can then bid 3? (what the heck) and if East thinks this is a control (as opposed to a probe for 3NT--which maybe it should be), he could drive to slam. Will any one reach 7?? I think just getting to 6? is quite a good result.

For a full book of Bidding Challenges by Larry Cohen (Advanced), click here.