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Which Game?
You open 1NT. You hold:
K93
KJ2
AQ32
Q92
Partner bids 2,
and you accept the transfer by bidding 2.
Now, partner bids 3NT, offering you a choice
of games. Which game?
Should you pass, or correct to 4?
Does it depend on whether it is IMPs or Matchpoints?
These are often difficult decisions. I'd
probably opt for 4
with this hand (at either form of scoring), but it is very close.
Change the clubs to QJx,
or maybe even Q10x,
and I'd pass. With a side doubleton, I'd "always"
go back to the major. With a doubleton in partner's suit,
I'd almost always play 3NT. With 4-3-3-3, I'd often choose
notrump.
But, here is my special tip. Everything
changes when you face this same dilemma after a two
notrump opener. Change the above hand to:
AKJ
KQ10
AQ32
Q92.
You open 2NT and partner transfers to 3,
then bids 3NT. Your call?
This is now an easy removal to
4.
In fact, whenever partner transfers to a major after your 2NT and
then bids 3NT, I recommend playing in the major every time
you have 3+ card support.
Why?
Because after 2NT, partner doesn't have room.
When he transfers and bids 3NT he can be offshape. Don't assume he
has a nice balanced 5-3-3-2 shape. He could have a singleton.
Consider this hand:
A43
Q10543
8764
3.
After partner's 2NT, what else could you do
but transfer to hearts and then bid 3NT? This would be the right
contract opposite, say:
KJ2
A2
AKQ32
K102.
After a one notrump opener, when
responder transfers and then bids 3NT, he is balanced. He can't
have a singleton (he would have bid out his shape). But, after a two
notrump opener, responder will often have a side singleton. He has
no room to show his shape--he is forced into showing his major and
then bidding 3NT with numerous 5-4-3-1 patterns. He could even be
5-5, something like:
J
KJ642
108432
102.
Opposite my partner's 2NT, I see no other
option but to transfer to hearts and then bid 3NT, offering a
choice of games between 3NT and 4.
This hand is not good enough (or strange enough) to transfer to
hearts and then persist with 4,
maybe bypassing a laydown 3NT.
So, as the 2NT opener, I am always aware that
my partner's transfer-then-3NT sequence does not guarantee a
balanced hand.
This is why my tip for the month is :
When partner offers you a choice after
your 2NT opener, "never" leave it in 3NT when you have
3+ card support.
Special related bonus tip:
| Consider this auction:
1NT 2
2
2NT
??
Let's say the 1NT opener has a minimum. He
has 3-card trump support and a flat hand (say, 4-3-3-3).
Should he pass 2NT, or correct to 3?
My advice: "Always" correct to the suit. Why?
Use the same logic as the main article above. The responder might
not be 5-3-3-2. He might have a singleton. Consider
this hand for the responder:
Q
J8652
A32
Q532.
He transfers and wants to invite game. He
can't bid 3
next, because that would be forcing to game. His only choice
is to transfer to hearts and then bid 2NT invitational.
Because the 2NT-bidder in these auctions
will sometimes have a singleton, the opener should always
correct to 3 of the major. Contrast this with:
1NT 2
2
3NT
??
Now, responder won't have any singletons.
If he was offshape he could have easily bid his second suit.
On this auction, opener will often choose notrump if he is
4-3-3-3. |
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(For a related article see: "Should
I Transfer")
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